. -- of a nonliteral expletive. >> what is the difference between liberal and nonliteral for expletives? >> as i understand it, the way the fcc has referred to it is to say if a presentation of languages actually describing sexual or excretory activity, that is liberal usage. whereas with other context, it is not actually referring to that activity but it is using it as a euphemism, and because of that is still continued to be the omnibus remaned order. but that is where it is explains a change in policy. that is what they're trying to get to now, to say if you are dealing with images, it is necessarily a liberal image, but that is not the policy from the past, which has treated it differently. as this court pointed out in prior decisions, that is because of 1654 itself. it does not distinguish between the two, and instead turns to utterances. so the commission has tried to say that images are different by necessity, but you will not find that in any prior fcc case. to the definite -- so the definition has become the fifth generic -- dictionary definition. >> we did say that they did no